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Question: Yeshua (Jesus) said, “be not called rabbi, for one is your Master:

Question: Jesus (Yeshua) said, "be not called rabbi, for one is your Master: Messiah; and, do not be called masters, for one is your Master: Messiah; and call no man on earth father, for one is your Father: He Who is in heaven.", can you, please, explain this to me?

Answer: Some would use these verses to prove that it is wrong and unscriptural to call anyone rabbi. I believe in the context of these scriptures Yeshua was opposing the concept of any term or title which would cause a sharp delineation of clergy and laity.

He would likewise be opposed to the title reverend, if it means exalting clergy above laity. The Pharisees had a reputation for outward piety, although quite often it was a show for the public, since their hearts were not right with God. They therefore used their titles so as to gain praise from men. It was against this that Yeshua was speaking.

If we were to take these scriptures literally then children would not be able to call their dad, father. Yeshua was using a hyperbole here, showing His disagreement with the type of religious separation between clergy and laity being practised by the Pharisees. Here in fact are two of many scriptures where Paul applied the title father to a man, in fact in one instance to himself.

Romans 4:12 12 And the father of circumcision to them who are not of the circumcision only, but who also walk in the steps of that faith of our father Abraham, which he had being yet uncircumcised. (KJV)

1Thessalonians 2:11 11 As ye know how we exhorted and comforted and charged every one of you, as a father doth his children, (KJV)

Question: Rabbi Ya’acov, Could you answer these queries for me?

Question: Jesus was crucified by the Romans, not the Jewish priests. He was not slaughtered / sacrificed in the Temple but outside the Holy City on unsanctified ground. He was exposed to the dead, which nullifies Mosaic sacrifices, His blood was not poured out on the alter as required for sacrifices. Human sacrifice (let alone deity sacrifice!) is not accepted under the Law… And besides, when did God ever accept a blood sacrifice from the hands of a Pagan priest (or soldier) anyway? So, my question, how could his crucifixion have met the biblical requirements? If "Jesus fulfilled the Law" specifically which Laws did he fulfill? I don’t see that he fulfilled any of the sacrificial Laws/requirements as described in the TANAK or Hebrew Scriptures.

Answer: The Tanach teaches us that the price of sin is death, both physical and spiritual death. Physical death entered the world through the sin of Adam and Eve. Spiritual death separates us from G-d. It also, if left un-atoned for prior to physical death, means eternal separation from G-d. That is what hell is; it is eternal separation from G-d. While there is life there is hope, but there is no hope for someone who dies in sin. They are eternally separated from G-d. There are many sacrifices prescribed in Torah which took place outside the camp. The first Passover offering took place in Egypt. The Red Heifer Offering was burned outside the camp, as was the Yom Kippur offering. Only their blood was brought inside the camp. These were special offerings. Yeshua was a special case as well. As G-d He was the Torah. As man He came to die in our place. The decree of "you sin; you die," was against man. Animal sacrifice was G-d’s temporary alternative until the time of Messiah was right, otherwise there would be no one left on earth, for all have sin: Proverbs {20:9} Who can say, I have made my heart clean, I am pure from my sin? Yeshua came to pay the price for our sin. He came to satisfy the law. It was G-d who wrote the law and it was G-d who satisfied the law. The Just became the Justifier; that is grace! Which law did He justify you ask? The law of sin and death, the one that says "you sin you die," spiritually. As for your question about Yeshua’s blood not being sprinkled upon the alter, the Book of Hebrews in the Brit Chadasha (Renewed Covenant) answers that question for us: Hebrews {9:11} But Messiah being come an high priest of good things to come, by a greater and more perfect tabernacle, not made with hands, that is to say, not of this building; {9:12} Neither by the blood of goats and calves, but by his own blood he entered in once into the holy place, having obtained eternal redemption for us. {9:13} For if the blood of bulls and of goats, and the ashes of an heifer sprinkling the unclean, sanctifieth to the purifying of the flesh: {9:14} How much more shall the blood of Messiah, who through the eternal Spirit offered himself without spot to G-d, purge your conscience from dead works to serve the living G-d? Yeshua acted as His own High Priest. First Scripture tells us that nobody crucified Him, He offered Himself willingly as our substitute: John {10:17} Therefore doth my Father love me, because I lay down my life, that I might take it again. {10:18} No man taketh it from me, but I lay it down of myself. I have power to lay it down, and I have power to take it again. This commandment have I received of my Father. In addition we are told that Yeshua was a High Priest after the order of Melchesidec: Hebrews {5:6} As he saith also in another place, Thou art a priest for ever after the order of Melchisedec. He was therefore qualified to perform sacrifices.

Question: One of the sillynesses of the messianic movement is this notion of G-d

Question: Using the Name. One of the sillynesses of the messianic movement is this notion of the L-rd G-d. When we are born again, we are as Christ told us "His bride".  As His bride we are entitled to the FAMILY NAME for pity sakes. God is our Father, and His Son is our bridegroom.  We are now family, entitled to the family name as we are betrothed to the Father’s Son. Shalom, for to know God is to know true PEACE Dr. Ron

Answer: Shalom Pastor Ron; Thank you ever so much for your comment. We are well aware of our family relationship with the Farther. Messianic Judaism is a unique movement. We desire to be a light to our unsaved Jewish brothers and sisters. As such we do not wish to offend anyone of them who may be reading or web page or material. Jewish people hold the name G-d in very high esteem and are careful not to use His name in vain. Perhaps we can learn something from that. Also 1 Corinthians 9:20ff.

Question: I have been brought up to believe that the kippah is to be the sign that G-d is with us.

Question: I have a question…. I have a kippah…. I have been brought up to believe that the kippah is to be the sign that G-d is with us. Now, in the New Testament it says, 1Co 11:4 Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered, dishonoreth his head. It also says, 1Co 11:7 For a man indeed ought not to cover his head, forasmuch as he is the image and glory of God: but the woman is the glory of the man. Does this mean we should no longer wear our kippahs?

Answer:  Headcoverings for men: In many places in the Bible, a man was supposed to cover his head. However, in the English mistranslations, Rav Shaul (Paul) seems to be writing against this practice, at Korintim Aleph / 1 Corinthians 11.

Consider that in Torah, the Levites were to cover their heads as a sign of submission to HASHEM. In fact, Vayikra / Leviticus 21:10-11 even states that the Kohen haGadol (the High Priest) was never to uncover his head, not even for the death of a relative.  And then in the Prophets we read that when Abshalom chased David out of Yerushalayim, David went barefoot, and covered his head.  Also, In Yechezkel / Ezekiel 44:18 we read that the Millennial Priesthood will be wearing linen turbans on their heads. But if Yeshua did not come to do abolish the Torah or the Prophets, then how can Shaul write that a man is not supposed to cover his head? It makes no sense.

When we read the mistranslation of this passage in the English, we read:  [4] Every man praying or prophesying, having his head covered brings shame to his head. [5] And every woman praying or prophesying with her head uncovered brings shame to her head, for that is one and the same as if her head were shaved. [6] For if a woman is not covered, let her also be shorn. But if it is a shame for a woman to be shorn or shaved (and it is), [then] let her be covered. [7] For indeed a man should not cover his head, since he is the likeness and esteem of The Eternal One, but the woman is the esteem of man.  Korintim aleph 11:4-7. (ISR)

However, when we take this passage back to the Greek translation of the Hebrew originals, we see something very different than in the mistranslation into English: [4] Every man praying or prophesying down over (his) head having shames the head of him (speaking of a veil).

Every but woman praying or prophesying uncovered with the head, shames the head of herself, one for it is and the same with being shaved. If for not is covered a woman, also let her be shorn. If but shameful for a woman to be shorn or to be shaved, let her be covered. A man for indeed not ought to be covered the head, the image and glory of [The Eternal One] being. Korintim aleph 11:4-7 (Green’s Interlinear).

The key to understanding this passage is twofold:  1.- Shaul was not writing against the practices and traditions of the forefathers (the Patriarchs), as recorded in the Torah. He would not, and he could not, or else he would not be of Messiah, who did not come to abolish the Torah (Mattitityahu 5:17-20).  

Question: why you call the Ruach Hakodesh… HIM?

Question: I read your study every week and I thank you for them. I have a question and I was wondering if you would answer it? I was curios I have seen where the term RUACH-Hakodesh is of a female nature name or reference and I was wondering why you call the Ruach Hakodesh …HIM? I was taught the Ruach HaKodesh רוח הקודש is really a famine reference and therefore completes the Family of G-D.
Could you please enlighten me as to which is correct?

Shalom,
Tom

Shalom Tom;

Answer: Hebrew is a language unlike any other. The use of the feminin is not unusual even when referring to the masculine. The word may be feminin but that does not necessarily mean that what it is referring to is feminin. There are many such examples in Biblical Hebrew, Ruach HaKodesh is only one of them. You can not apply English concepts to Biblical Hebrew it doesn’t work. Example the word Avot is feminin but it means fathers.

Question: How does one establish that one is “a Jewish person”?

Question: How does one establish that one is "a Jewish person"? Since there were 13 tribes of Israel and many populations moved to Europe and much of this population preserved their ‘Jewishness" or indeed, their original faith, what about the rest of us who may be "Jewish" originally but whose original faith has been lost due to migrations and so on… I support Messianic Jewry as an essential reality of history and of those millions of Jews who accept our Messiah, as foretold in Micah

Blessings,

Answer: Shalom from Congregation Melech Yisrael:

Thank you for writing to us, if you want to learn more about us, please visit our website, www.cmy.on.ca and use the search engine there. By using it you may be able to find the answer to other question. Our website contains hundred of Biblical studies in many languages from the Torah centred Messianic Jewish Perspective.  Now to the question at hand:

Our answer: Biblically if your father was born into the Jewish nation  his offspring are natural branches, part of the Jewish nation. In addition anyone, according to Ephesians 2:12, who is born again is automatically grafted into the Jewish nation and becomes an equal heir to the promises made to Abraham, Isaac and Jacob. Religiously however, you are only religiously Jewish if your mother was religiously Jewish or her mother was religiously Jewish, that is part of the Jewish religion. Hitler went back four religious generations in his quest to kill Jews, so I presume the rabbis do as well. Religious Jews, other than those of the tribe of Levi do not know their tribal ancestry. It seems that only the Levites passed down their heritage. However, even that assumption is iffy.

Question: Is it just a Jewish tradition to pray with tefillin daily?

Question: Is it just a Jewish tradition to pray with tefillin daily (no tefillin required on Shabbat and high Holidays). Does it say in the Torah that we must wear it while doing the morning prayers?

Answer: Nowhere in Torah does it say that you must wear Tefillin to pray, not in the morning, not anytime. Tefillin are a rabbinical interpretation of Devarim 6:8-10. They were in common uses during Yeshua’s time and it is presumed that He used them. Wearing tefillin for morning prayer is a rabbinical tradition. I happen to think it is a good one, because of the symbolism of binding the word of God on your hand, close to your heart. It is a reminder to use your hands for the work of God and being on the left hand close to the heart is a reminder to keep the word of God always on your heart. The tefillin on your head reminds you to think the thoughts of God all day. HaShem gives us many such reminders throughout Torah.

Question: What about wearing Kippahs in a Messianic Synagogue and why we do?

Question: What about wearing Kippahs in a Messianic Synagogue and why we do? Hi Rabbi Jack. Last Shabbat a visitor to CMY named Ali asked me a question about wearing Kippahs in a Messianic Synagogue and why we do. I searched online for answers but only got messages of people who argue about it.
Elijah.

Answer: Shabbat Shalom Elijah; The wearing of the kippah is more traditional than biblical. The biblical part is that the priests of Temple times always had their heads covered. We too are priests, as we know Scripture teaches, therefore, wearing of kippot is appropriate. The traditional part is that orthodox Jews have always worn kippot as a symbol of their devotion and separateness. We wear kippot as a witness to un-saved Jewish people who we are sharing the gospel with and to associate ourselves with the Jewish community. Kippot at Melech Yisrael are not obligatory unless called to the bimah.

Hope this answers your question.
Blessings in Yeshua

Question: Brit Mila (Circumcision); is it necessary in the New Testament?

Question: Brit Mila (Circumcision); is it necessary in the New Testament? Shalom, I am Chandra from India I would like to know more about BRIT-MILAH (circumcision) is it necessary in the new testament time if you have any literature on this subject please send me. Ch.Chandra

Answer: Shalom Chadra; Thank you for your e-mail. Brit Milah is not a required for salvation. Salvation is a free gift from God, no requirements attached. However, once saved the Torah teaches us how a saved person is supposed to live, act and look. Growing into Torah is called sanctification. Part of this growing process is Brit Milah. So the answer to your question is, yes. Brit Milah was given to the people of God as a sign of their identification with the covenant of God and therefore is part of the natural sanctification process, not of salvation but sanctification.
Blessing in Yeshua

Question: Eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth and turn the other cheek; what is it?

Question: Eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth and turn the other cheek; what is it? Thank you for these commentaries. It is very inspiring. I would like to ask a question. We read in the Torah an eye for an eye and a tooth for a tooth. Yeshua said turn the other cheek. Please explain how this fits in with the Torah. Thank you.

Answer: Shalom Charles thank you for the question. The contexts of these two passages are totally different. In teaching us to walk the extra mile, to turn the other cheek, Yeshua was teaching us not to take revenge. If someone hits us, do not take revenge and hit him back. This however does not conflict with us defending ourselves against an aggressor. The Bible does provide for self defence. Vengeance however is of the Lord. The Torah teaching, on the other hand, refers and deals with punishment for a crime. There is no conflict in the teachings.

Thank you for being a part of our on-line family. We do teach a Bible study live on-line if you would like to join in. Check out our web-site: www,cmy.on.ca and click “Radio Mashiach” for the day and times.
Blessing in Yeshua

Question: Once saved, always…. saved? Or I never knew you?

Question: Two different concepts entirely. How to rightly apply them? One teacher says: even if a believer sins, he will NEVER lose his salvation. He will simply be ‘spanked’ by G-d, may have to be taken home early (die) but he is heaven bound no matter what! Another teacher says, Yeshua said depart from me, I never knew you, you who work iniquity! This teacher reminds us the road is Narrow! How then, do you see the two questions I raised of the two Teachers? Once saved, always…. saved? Or I never knew you? This is important doctrine. Thank you very much. Davida

Answer: Thank you Davida; With the "Depart from Me" I believe here Yeshua is referring to the tares which grow up among the wheat. They claimed to be believers but produce no fruit as evidence of salvation therefore, they were not saved. Salvation is a free gift! We do not do anything to earn it other then have faith, that is, God said it I believe it! Therefore if you no longer believe that God said it, you no longer have faith. "Without faith it is impossible to please God." Blessings in Yeshua.

Question: Right interpretation: A man had neither dressed woman’s clothes nor the woman man clothes?

Question: Dear Rabbino Ya’acov Farber If you don’t understand Portuguese sorry my poor English. I would like to know which the interpretation of the torah in relationship on the text of the Parasha, Parashat HaShavua Ki Teitzei / When You Leave; Devarim / Deuteronômio 21:10-25:19, that we studied on this week. On the following, according to the Torah, which is the interpretation on the text that says that the man had neither dressed woman’s clothes nor the woman man clothes. Women cannot use clothes man nor the men use clothes woman; the eternal, our God, abhors people who are doing it. Det. 22.5

Answer: Shalom Brother Reinaldo; You are correct I do not speak Portuguese however my computer does and it is able to translate for me. What this Scripture means relates to homosexuality and cross dressing. So what it means is that women are not to dress themselves to look like a man. It does not mean that women can not wear pants; they can, so long as they are not doing it for the purpose of looking like a man. In the same way men are not to dress themselves to look like women. We allow women to wear pants in the congregation but they can not be a part of the official service if they are wearing pants, they must wear a skirt. The ideal would be for women to always wear skirts but that would be very difficult to enforce in society today.

Question: Tithing to a church that does not support Israel, or to an online ministry I can believe in?

Question: Shalom, Over a year ago, I asked about becoming an online member of CMY; since I have access to no physical Messianic fellowship in Maine. I must confess that supporting CMY has been greatly lacking by me — to which I am sorry. I do have a dilemma and am not sure what to do; therefore, I seek advice. I have heard Rabbi Ya’acov state during the tithe offering that if CMY is our spiritual source of food, we should tithe there — but if we are a part of a church, we should tithe there and just give offerings. My problem is that I get fed from a variety of online ministries by listening to audio teachings on their websites. As to my church, I have a problem tithing to a church that does not support Israel in any of their missions. Neither do they believe in the validity of Torah for today. I am not sure what to do about my tithe. Whenever Rabbi Ya’acov is online teaching, I try to make an effort to listen. There are times when I do learn something from my pastor’s sermons — but other times my skin crawls because of misinterpretation based on a Greek mindset and not a Hebrew mindset. I truly desire to honor HaShem with my money. In His Service, Joe

Answer: Shalom Joe; Thank you for your e-mail. You have quite the dilemma, I must say. However, as I see it you are going to have to make a decision. You need to put yourself under an authority. I have found that floaters (people who float around from one teaching to the other) tend, in the end, to get deceived and therefore put their salvation in jeopardy. The pastor of your church, according to Scripture, is more than just a teacher and preacher he is the shepherd of your soul. If you continue to go there, even for fellowship, there is where you should be tithing. But if you do not agree with their theology then you will have to decide if you need to break away completely. However, you can not leave yourself without an authority, you must put yourself under someone. We have a few of our internet listeners who have put themselves under our authority and communicate with us on a regular basis by e-mail as well as by phone. They are tithing here. But they also have committed themselves here. Everything we do here is broadcast live over the internet, from our regular services to all special services to Bible Studies. If you feel you can not commit to this congregation then you must find a place that you can commit to and tithe there. The rest of us you should be offering to, if even only a token amount. You can not be a floater and expect to survive. There is too much false teaching out there that sounds so good and so right, but it’s not. If you’re saying to yourself now that you won’t be deceived then you’re on your way to being deceived because pride comes before the fall. Hope I was helpful. Blessings in Yeshua

Question: Did G-D know that man would not live forever when he created man?

Question: Did G-D know that man would not live forever when he created man? If so why did he say that he regretted that he made man? If he did not know, then why do we say he knows the end from the beginning? Charles

Answer: Shalom Bro. Charles Man was created to live forever in perfect harmony with God. We are under the curse of Adam therefore sin has shortened our lifespan. However, God’s plan is to return us to the Garden of Eden state which He is in the process of doing. God regretted that He created man because He grieved for what man would have to suffer because of his bad choices. In other words He regretted that He created something that would have to suffer. It wasn’t a regret that He ever created us because then He would have killed Noah in the flood along with everyone else. Thank you for your question. Blessings in Yeshua

Question: Conversion in Messianic Judaism?

Question: Shalom Rabbi Ya’acov I was wondering if you could possibly give me your comments on a situation that has arisen in the Messianic community that myself and my husband have been a part of for over twelve years. The original vision was to teach those coming into this movement how to live a messianic lifestyle, how to see Yeshua as central in all the Festivals, High Holy days, and Shabbats etc. We were made up of Jews and non Jews who believed in the Jewish Messiah Yeshua. Over the last few months we have been told by those in leadership that everyone must convert (under their conversion programme) to become a Jew if they want to be part of this. (Including circumcision for the men). This was never part of the original vision, even for the leadership who are now introducing this. Myself and my husband who have felt the original vision was the L-rd’s end time work to restore true Biblical teaching and worship, are now devastated by this new idea brought in. We are on the point of leaving. The scriptures we have read about this seem to say this is wrong. Could you possibly give me your opinion on this, do you feel this is the correct way forward? As we need to hear from others outside of our particular organization. I know you must be very busy but we would appreciate hearing from you on this matter. Should a non Jewish believer who loves Yeshua the Messiah have to become Jewish through conversion (incl. circumcision for men) in order, (not to be saved ) but to be complete. Thank you in advance for this.

Answer: Shalom; I’m truly saddened to hear this news. It appears that deception as entered into the hearts of the leadership of your congregation. Conversion is a Jewish (religious) thing not a biblical thing. As a non-Jew you were converted the day you received Yeshua as your Messiah and affiliated yourself with a Torah centred congregation. Conversion is of the heart and not of man (Spirit not flesh). As for circumcision, it is a part of the sanctification process. Circumcision is a sign and not a requirement of salvation. I believe that circumcision should come from the heart and not as a requirement for membership in a congregation. As part of the sanctification process, God should be the one convicting a man to be circumcised not man. Sadly many UMJC affiliated congregations are now requiring what your congregation is requiring. It is for this reason, as well as others, that our congregation resigned from the UMJC. I will be praying for you and your leadership (no need to let me know who they are, God knows).

Blessings in Yeshua

Question: Meds done here in the States come from non Kosher animals?

Question: Shalom Rabbi, My family and I live some distance from a synagogue, so we listen to your service every Shabbat. We very much enjoy Shabbat School. Your teaching has helped us keep our heads up in times of trouble. Thank you. I have just read that our U.S. government "FDA" has approved getting some kind of medicine from a gene altered goat. I find this kind of thing happening all the time now here in the States. It is quite disturbing. This got me to questioning the sources of medicines and I have learned that many of the meds done here in the States come from non Kosher animals. If G-d tells us not to partake of these things what about medicines that are made from them? Chaver Y.M.

Answer: Shalom Y.M.; Thank you for being part of our internet ministry. It’s such a blessing for us to hear that you are listening on line. I had a struggle with the exact same question you are asking. Who knows what’s inside the medication we are taking. However, after careful study and consideration I arrived at the conclusion that the Bible teaches that saving a life supersedes the Torah. An example of that is Yeshua healing the man with the withered hand on the Shabbat. Medication would definitely fit into the category of saving lives. So in my humble opinion there would be no problem in taking medication from non-kosher sources.

Blessings in Yeshua

Question: Can you please explain why "renewed covenant" and not "new covenant"?

Question: Shalom Can you please explain why "renewed covenant" and not "new covenant"? Blessings John

Answer: Shalom John; The Hebrew word for new “Chadash” does not necessary mean “New” as we understand new. Our understanding of new is something that is completely different from the original. However, the Hebrew understanding of Chadash can mean “Renewed”. For instance: In Hebrew we refer to a new month as Rosh Chodesh (from the root Chadash). As you know, the Hebrew months are based on the moon and a new month begins with a new moon. However, the moon is not new, that is, different from the original moon; it is new rather in the sense that it has been renewed to start a new month. When you understand that the New Covenant contains nothing in it that is totally new or completely different from the Old Covenant, then you can understand that it is actually a Renewed Covenant not a New Covenant. Like the new moon is not new but only represents a new month, so too the Brit Chadasha is not new but only represents progressive revelation of the Tanach (Hebrew Scriptures).

Blessings in Yeshua

Question: The name of Jesus means from the Greek to many other translations?

Question: Many thanks for that, Rabbi Ya’acov. Whilst I’m writing to you perhaps you can help me with the name Jesus (I always use Yeshua) but I have read that Jesus is a transliteration of another transliteration and that things got a bit mixed up along the way and another version, which is tied up with Greek letters/numbers means when we use the name Jesus we are actually cursing Him or calling Him a pig. Can you throw any light on this, please? I’m not one who likes grey areas. It needs to be black or white. Shalom & blessings in Yeshua John

Answer: Shalom John; Although the name Jesus is not the proper name of our Lord and Saviour, it is not a curse nor is it calling Him a pig. Millions of people have been saved and are saved in the name of Jesus. However, it is still not His name. According to Scripture the proper name of our Lord is Yeshua, which translated means Salvation. The name Jesus is an Anglicization of the Greek transliteration of the Hebrew of Yeshua and does not translate into any known word in English or any other language. It is a man made name. However, it appears that Yeshua does answer to this name. Now that you know His real name however, I would suggest that you use it from now on.

Blessings In Yeshua

Question: What is Yisrael? Physical Israel and spiritual Israel?

Question: I have a question whose answer may be a bit obvious but here it goes: What is Yisrael? The church will give the answer that there is a physical Israel ("The Jews" in a demeaning tone) and spiritual Israel (themselves). They will say something like "physical Israel rejected their Messiah so G-d took a new bride/the church". This is redundant as G-d is the same yesterday, today and tomorrow and cannot by His very nature go back on an oath. I have heard you say on many occasions that there is only one Yisrael. This makes sense. Yisrael is the Bride of the Lamb and has never changed. Gentiles could come in before Yeshua; Gentiles can come in after Yeshua. I hope I have understood correctly this far. Now comes the question. Throughout the prophets, HaShem mentions Yisrael as being unloyal like a wayward wife. If Yisrael is the body of believers/talmidim, how can they be unloyal/idolatrous? It says that Yisrael becomes pagan as though being part of Yisrael was merely a genetic matter. Many would explain that it is physical Yisrael that has gone astray and not spiritual Yisrael. Something about that does not seem right though. As I write this out I am starting to get an idea of the answer….. but an elucidation of this topic would be great. Thank you very much and blessings, Calev

Answer: Shalom Calev; Thank you for the question. Yes, Yisrael was not loyal like a wayward wife. She did go astray and serve idols and many of Yisrael still are doing both. However, since Yeshua, HaShem has restored Yisrael, brought them back to Him. Yet as we know, not all Yisrael is saved so not all have come back to Him, yet! That’s how it works, understand? There is only one Yisrael we as believers (both Jew and non-Jew) have both the physical and spiritual promises, the unsaved Jews (also Yisrael) have only the physical promises.

Blessings Rabbi

Question: Does husband and wife (a couple) permitted to have sex on a Sabbath?

Question: Shalom Rabbi Farber, how is Toronto? Am doing good here in Kenya. Wanted to ask one question, According to Messianic Judaism, Does husband and wife (a couple) permitted to have sex on a Sabbath? Lets say Friday night while they are relaxing at home before going to the Synagogue on Satuday morning or may be the service was finalised by 3pm so they went home early, are they still permitted to have sex before performing the havdallah later on at sunset? Your answer will be highly appreciated. Sande

Answer: Shalom Sande; Great hearing from you. All is well with us in Toronto, thank you. I believe (this is me speaking and not the Lord), based on the following Scriptures that a husband should keep from having sex with his wife on the days they go to synagogue. However, as I said this is my opinion only! Shemot (Exodus) 19:15 15 And he said unto the people, Be ready against the third day: come not at your wives. Shmuel Alef (1 Samuel) 21:4 4 And the priest answered David and said, "There is no ordinary bread on hand, but there is consecrated bread; if only the young men have kept themselves from women."

Blessings in Yeshua Rabbi Ya’acov

Question: Did Jesus fulfill the messianic prophecies?

Question:  Dear Rabbi Ya’acov Farber: I am an agnostic Gentile who, although very critical of the Bible, nevertheless finds   religion most interesting. I very recently read an article written by two orthodox rabbis  entitled " WHY  JEWS  SAY  JESUS  IS  NOT  THE  MESSIAH. " I found their arguments to be most persuasive, but I am writing to you in the hope that you can answer the four statements that these rabbis used to “prove” that Jesus Christ is not the messiah.

1.  JESUS did not build the third Temple. (EZEKIEL 37:26 – 28)
2.  JESUS did not usher in an era of world peace and end all hatred, oppression, suffering and disease. As the Bible says: “Nation shall not lift up sword against nation, neither shall man learn war any more.” (ISAIAH 2: 4)
3.  JESUS did not successfully spread universal knowledge of the God of Israel: which will unite humanity as one. As the Bible says: "God will be King over all the world – on that day God will One and His Name will be One.” (ZECHARIAH 14:9)
4.  JESUS did not gather all Jews back to the land of Israel. (ISAIAH 43:5 – 6)

If an individual fails to fulfill even one of these conditions, then He cannot be the messiah. Jesus did not fulfill the messianic prophecies.

Christians counter that Jesus will fulfill these things in the second coming, but Jewish sources show that the Messiah will fulfill the prophecies outright. In the Old Testament there is no concept of a second coming.

Rabbi Farber, can you answer these statements satisfactorily or is it all over for Christians and Messianic Jews?!

Thank you
Best regards:

JULIAN M.

Answer: Shalom Aleichem, In response to your questions you must first understand that the Rabbi’s of the Rishonim age (10th-15th century) were the one’s who had developed the Halakah (Jewish law) about office of the Moshiach. Mind you that these Rabbi’s were removed from the Tananim age (0-1st century) in which Yeshua lived and their views of the Moshiach were not the same as the Tananim. The development of latter Rabbinic Judaism in regards to
the position of Moshiach was based on the rejection of Yeshua being the Moshiach. Without a degree of knowledge of the Talmud along with the Bible it’s easy to be swindled by what today’s Rabbi’s peddle as disinformation.

To answer your first claim that Yeshua did not build the Temple. This claim is found in Rambam (Rabbi Moshe Maimonides) Mishneh Torah (Hilchot HaMalachim chapters 11-12) where the Rambam lays down the Halakah that in order for a person to be qualified as the Moshiach this person must fight off Israel’s enemies and then rebuild the Beit HaMikdash (3rd Temple). To say Yeshua failed to be the Moshiach because he did not fulfill the requirements of Moshiach as laid down by the Rambam is nonsense.

When Yeshua was alive in the year 30CE during his ministry the Beit HaMikdash (2nd Temple) was already standing and according to the prophecy of Daniel (Daniel 9:26) the Moshiach would arrive on the heels of the destruction of the 2nd Temple and would be cut off. The Talmud in Yoma 39 confesses that 40 years before the destruction of the 2nd Temple everything ceased to function. The Menorah in the Western court would no longer light. The Yom Kippur offering was rejected; the crimson cord would no longer turn white. The doors of the Temple would open by themselves. The breast plate of the Kohen HaGadol would stop working, etc… 40 years before the year 70CE was the year 30CE when Yeshua entered into the picture according to Prophet Daniel. While the Temple was still standing, the Moshiach was there and Rebbe Yeshua made a greater argument then the Rambam in which he stated in Yochnan (John) 2:19 that if they destroy him (the Moshiach, the greater Temple) then he would raise it in Three Days. According to the B’rit Chadasha (New Testament) Yeshua did just this.

You must understand that Rambam was at lest 1100 years removed from the 2nd Temple, and at that time the Jewish people were exiled and did not have any opposing enemies. Though Rome was the authority over Israel during the 2nd Temple they did not infringe upon the Jewish people from following the Torah unlike the Greeks. It was only because of the zealots revolt against Rome did the Romans destroy the Temple. And then later under the command of Rabbi Akiva with the election of Bar Kochba, the false messiah did Rome in the year 135CE finish the death blow to the Jewish people. Thus the Rabbinic claim that Yeshua never rebuilt the 3rd Temple is foolish, the Temple and Jewish exile took place after Daniel’s prophecy as Yeshua alluded to. The reference to the temple in Yehezqel (Ezekiel) has to due with the end of the Roman exile, not Yeshua’s day.

The reference to Isaiah 2:4 is not to be taken literally. Even Rambam, who modern day Judaism quotes as the Halakhic authority on the Moshiach writes that these Messianic references to Isaiah are not to be taken literal. Rambam writes in Mishneh Torah:

"One is not to presume that anything of the ways of the world will be set aside in the Messianic era, or that there will be any innovation in the order of creation; rather, the world will continue according to its norms.

As for that which is said in Isaiah, that "the wolf will dwell with the sheep and the leopard will lie down with the kid"- this is an allegory and metaphor. It means that Israel shall dwell securely alongside the wicked heathens who are likened to wolves and leopards, as it is said "a wolf from the plains ravages, a leopard lies in wait over their cities. “[In the Messianic era] all will return to the true religion and will neither steal nor destroy, but consume that which is permitted, in repose alongside Israel, as it is said, "the lion will eat straw like the ox.” All other such expressions are also allegories, and in the era of the Messianic King everyone will come to know what the allegory is about and what allusions are indicated."

Right out of Rambam’s mouth these passages from Isaiah are not literal! The anti-Yeshua Rabbi’s cannot have their cake and eat it too! If we take Rambam’s words at face value and look at the past 2000 years from Yeshua’s day we will see G-d has been rebuilding Yisrael through both Jew and Gentile where they are to strive in peace with their neighbour, to be an Or Lgoyim (Light to the nations). Thus you can still have the Divine Light of Moshiach in the world through his followers while evil still exist.

Your quote to Zechariah 14:9 about universal knowledge of G-d is wrong. First that passage in Zechariah 14:9 pertains to the end of the Messianic Era when all of creation will be ONE with HaShem. The knowledge that Zechariah is speaking about deals with all of creation being one with G-d, being merged into the source of creation. Second, according to the Prophets (Isaiah) Yeshua has brought more revelation to the goyim (nations) then any other Jew. No Rabbi, Sage, Scholar, Prophet, etc has brought the revelation of the G-d of Avraham, Yitzhaq, and Ya’aqov to the nations then Rebbe Yeshua. It has been through Yeshua that the nations have come to knowledge of the G-d of Israel. Ask a gentile if they know Rabbi Hillel, Rabbi Akiva, Rabbi Yochanan Ben Zakai, etc… And the answer will be NO. But ask them how did they come to the knowledge of the G-d of Israel and they will say through Yeshua.

As I stated earlier without a degree of knowledge of the Talmud along with the Bible it’s easy to be swindled by what today’s Rabbi’s peddle as disinformation. Today’s Rabbi’s do not truly reflect what the original Sages taught about the Moshiach.

In Yeshua

Yehezqel

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